So this is evidence that SARSCov2 existed in 2010, is my conclusion from this, David somehow acquired it, it was injected and came from a lab, is thus engineered and patented. Retroviruses reproduce by reverse transcription. HIV is a retrovirus. mRNA vaxes work using a plasmid. Retroviruses are used as plasmids. Dr. McC stated in the Congressional Roundtable that the jabs create spike protein by reverse transxption. They were focused on Pfizer Moderna mainly, which claim a mysterious "lipid nanoparticle" which is a fancy word for a virus. And employing nanotech, which is a verboten term due to bioethics. So the Pfizer Modernas are using a lipid nanoparticle for a plasmid, which is a patented, lab engineered retrovirus? And I assume the LNP contains the entire genome to replicate itself through recombinant gene gain of function to cross-contaminate from mouse to human xenophobically? The plasmids are the infectious and can shed, infecting others who are uninocculated? This research has been going on in labs sactioned by CDC, NIH, NIAID, DOD since the 1980s or before (based on my own research). Since it was highly unethical, it was top secret, but our govt sactioned it. I can go on, but these are the dots as I connect them from the enigmatic clues and puzzle pieces. How did David get infected with the SARSCov2 as far back as 2010? Was it a variant of MERS SARS Cov1? Maybe I'm totally misguided, but the scenario is reading like a Whodunnit series.
So this is evidence that SARSCov2 existed in 2010, is my conclusion from this, David somehow acquired it, it was injected and came from a lab, is thus engineered and patented. Retroviruses reproduce by reverse transcription. HIV is a retrovirus. mRNA vaxes work using a plasmid. Retroviruses are used as plasmids. Dr. McC stated in the Congressional Roundtable that the jabs create spike protein by reverse transxption. They were focused on Pfizer Moderna mainly, which claim a mysterious "lipid nanoparticle" which is a fancy word for a virus. And employing nanotech, which is a verboten term due to bioethics. So the Pfizer Modernas are using a lipid nanoparticle for a plasmid, which is a patented, lab engineered retrovirus? And I assume the LNP contains the entire genome to replicate itself through recombinant gene gain of function to cross-contaminate from mouse to human xenophobically? The plasmids are the infectious and can shed, infecting others who are uninocculated? This research has been going on in labs sactioned by CDC, NIH, NIAID, DOD since the 1980s or before (based on my own research). Since it was highly unethical, it was top secret, but our govt sactioned it. I can go on, but these are the dots as I connect them from the enigmatic clues and puzzle pieces. How did David get infected with the SARSCov2 as far back as 2010? Was it a variant of MERS SARS Cov1? Maybe I'm totally misguided, but the scenario is reading like a Whodunnit series.
Hi Judy, I am not seeing where it says that David seroconverted in 2010. Can you help me out here?
Thanks! ~Vicki